A 30-year-old female with right shoulder pain.
4 images of the right shoulder were obtained (axillar, Y-view, internal rotation, external rotation)
Right shoulder: There is a nondisplaced fracture involving the inferior aspect of the glenoid, with involvement of the articular surface. Glenohumeral joint shows normal alignment. Acromioclavicular joint is normal. No soft-tissue calcification. No fracture or dislocation
What is the most likely diagnosis?
The most likely diagnosis is Hill-Sachs lesion
Hill-Sachs lesions are a posterolateral humeral head compression fracture. Typically occurs secondary to recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. It is often associated with a Bankart lesion of the glenoid
These lesions are best seen following relocation of the joint. It appears as a sclerotic line running vertically from the top of the humeral head towards the shaft. A wedge defect may be evident in large lesions. The lesions are better appreciated on internal rotation views
One thought on “Emergency #26 – Flashcard”
Would it be wrong to label it bony Bankart rather than Hill Sachs?