Musculoskeletal #23

89-year-old patient with groin mass

What do you see?

Imaging Findings

Agressive isquion mass with bone destruction, soft tissue component, necrosis and osteid matrix.

In the staging CT: Vertebral and skull signs of paget disease (Bone marrow heterogenity with lytic and sclerotic foci, cortical thikening and bone expansion; as well as partial pagetiic spinal block)

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Diagnosis

Pagetic secondary osteosarcoma on a patient with polyostotic bone paget.

Teaching Points

Osteosarcoma hallmarks are agressive bone mass with osteoid matriz.It can be primary or secondary (mainly on pagetic or radiated bone)
.

Emergency #32

53-year-old male:
– Hemodialysis patient
– Presents with a very large scrotum, size of a football
– Patient is not sick, no fever
– Laboratory results are normal
– US: Incarcerated inguinal hernia? Hydrocele? Malignancy?

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Diagnosis: Extensive scrotal lymphoedema

– Extensive scrotal wall thickening associated with diffuse lymphoedema extending to the base of penis not involving the penile corpora
– No extension into the deep subcutaneous tissue planes, inguinal canal, or muscles
– No extension to the groin or lower abdomen
– No inguinal adenopathy
– Both testicles are morphologically normal with no associated hydroceles
– There is no associated soft-tissue mass

Neuroradiology #31

56-years-old female:
* Fever and seizures

What do you see?

Click here to see the answer

HERPES SIMPLEX ENCEPHALITIS

See the characteristic ABRUPT SPARING OF THE BASAL GANGLIA WITH THEIR “BORDERS THAT CAN BE DRAWN WITH A FINE-POINT PEN”.

Other tips:

* Temporal (with anterior and medial predominance) and insular> frontal (with basal predominance) and cingular
* Not rare bilateral
* Look for SAH foci near the silvian fissures

Musculoskeletal #22

What do you see?

Click here to see the answer

Vertebral hemangioma with thickened trabeculae and fat foci inside the lesion, without soft tissue component with an associated pathological fracture.

TEACHING POINTS:
Bone hemangiomas are very frequent, atypical presentations and complications (like in this cases with soft tissue component and pathological fracture) are rare but radiologist must be aware of them to be able to make the correct diagnosis.

Neuroradiology #30

A 6-year-old boy presenting to emergency department with headache, nausea, and vomiting

What do you see?

Intra-axial cystic lesion with mass effect shows CSF signal intensity on all sequences, without enhancement and perilesional edema

Differential diagnosis include

* Parasitic diseases (hydatid cyst) spheric
* Neuroglial cyst may have surrounding gliosis
* Porencephalic cyst surrounding gliosis, communicates with ventricle

Same cystic lesion in superior lobe of left lung

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hydatid cyst disease
Both lesions were treated by surgery

Musculoskeletal #21

65-year-old man. Paraplegia after skiing accident. What do you see?

Click here to see the answer

Imaging findings

Complete low dorsal transdiskal and transvertebral fracture with extension to middle and posterior columns on an ankylosed spine.
Sever posterior angulation and displacement of the superior segment cord deformity, compression and myelopathy.

Diagnosis

Severe complete unstable ankylosed spine fracture with cord compression and mielopathy

Teaching points

Ankylosed spine show specific patterns of fracture with: higher tendency to three column involvement, and increased frequency of neurologic complications.

Neuroradiology #29

An 89-year-old female patient with aplastic anemia. What do you see?

Click here to see the answer

CT images without contrast media: Subacute isodense right subdural hematoma, revealed with narrowing of right cerebral hemispheric sulci and right lateral ventricle and minimal midline shift (red arrows), acute left subdural hematoma (blue arrow)

Musculoskeletal #20

72-year-old alcoholic patient with intractable dorsal pain and legs numbness and weakness.

What do you see?

Click here to see the answer

IMAGING FINDINGS:

Thoracic spine compression fracture with posterior displacement of the posterior wall of the vertebral body compromising the spinal canal, cord compression and associated myelopathy. T2W image shows fluid and hypointense bubble-like artifact consistent with vacuum cleft in the collapsed anterior vertebral body

DIAGNOSIS:

Kümmel disease (osteonecrosis and collapse of the vertebral body)

TEACHING POINTS:

Intravertebral vacuum cleft and fluid within the collapsed vertebral body is a characteristic feature
Differential diagnosis includes a pathologic (tumoral) fracture, and the presence of air strongly favors osteonecrosis

Would you like to see a complementary case?

Click here


MR T2-weighted and CT images to highlight the characteristic features of Kümmel disease

Intravertebral fluid seen on T2 image and air on CT image