Musculoskeletal #50

32-year-old male:

    • With chronic back pain lasting for 6 months, worsening at night, with a feeling of morning stiffness lasting about 2-3 hours, slight anaemia in laboratory tests, history of Crohn’s disease

MRI of the sacroiliac joints was performed (STIR, T1):

.   

Taking into account clinical data and MR images, what is the correct diagnosis?
      • B) Axial spondyloarthritis (axSPA)
Referring to the ASAS criteria, what MR imaging features typical of axSPA do you recognise in the images?
      • A) Bone marrow oedema
      • B) Joint space fluid
      • D) Erosions
      • E) Sclerosis

Explanation:
There are areas of bone marrow oedema in the left SI joint, with a small amount of joint space fluid in the upper segments, along with increased subchondral sclerosis and erosions. No features of capsulitis, no evident backfill or ankylosis visible. Joint space enhancement cannot be confirmed—this was a non-contrast study.

What are the initial eligibility requirements for assessing a patient according to the ASAS criteria?
      • Chronic back pain lasting more than three months
      • Onset of pain before age 45

Explanation:
To be eligible for the ASAS criteria, patients must have chronic back pain (lasting more than three months) with onset before age 45.
They can then be classified into one of two groups: the “imaging arm” if they have evidence of sacroiliitis (on X-ray or MRI) and at least one other feature of spondyloarthritis, or the “clinical arm” if they are HLA-B27 positive and have two or more other features of spondyloarthritis (e.g. uveitis, enthesitis, dactylitis, positive family history for axSPA, psoriasis, increased C-reactive protein level, etc).

Musculoskeletal #49

43-year-old patient:

        • Evaluation of right foot pain and swelling

T1, T2 and t1 POST-CONTRAST SEQUENCES

What are the findings?

Dumbbell-shaped lesion in third web space near the metatarsophalangeal joint with isointensity on T1 and hypo to isointensity and T2 sequences and inhomogeneous contrast enhancement

What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

Morton’s neuroma in third web space

Musculoskeletal #48

29-year-old female:

      • Left knee pain for three months
      • Body mass index: 35
      • X-rays are unremarkable

Showing images from an MRI

Coronal PDFS
Coronal PDFS
Coronal T1
What is wrong in the bone marrow?
    • Bone marrow reconversion: Signal intensity is that of normal red marrow being low T1 signal but still higher than skeletal muscle. Marrow reconversion occurs in the reverse order of normal red to yellow marrow conversion.
What could be the cause in general?
    • Physiological (e.g. cigarette smoking, obesity, high altitude), iatrogenic (e.g. post erythropoietin treatment), pathological (e.g. diabetes mellitus, severe chronic anaemia).
What could be the cause in this specific case?
    • Obesity (BMI 35)
Reference:

Musculoskeletal #47

54-year-old male:

      • Chronic shoulder pain and limited ROM
What is causing the symptoms? Describe all abnormalities you see.

Adhesive capsulitis


There is a thickening and edema of the inferior joint capsule in the axillary recess which is characteristic of adhesive capsulitis.

Additionally, there is an interstitial tear of supraspinatus tendon.

Explanation:

Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is an inflammatory condition characterized by shoulder stiffness, pain, and significant loss of passive range of motion.
The joint capsule exhibits inflammation, thickening and fibrosis, leading to pain and loss of ROM.
In most cases, adhesive capsulitis is a self-limited disease with high spontaneous recovery rates within 18 to 30 months.

Musculoskeletal #45

Clinical Data

40-year-old female:
with chronic medial side knee pain.

What abnormality is present?

Pellegrini-Stieda lesion


There is an ossified lesion adjacent to medial femoral condyle, at the insertion of medial collateral ligament (MCL).

MCL fibers are intact.

No signs of osteoarthritis.

Slight degenerative changes within the body of medial meniscus.

Explanation:

Pellegrini-Stieda lesions are defined as post-traumatic ossifications of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) at or near its proximal insertion on the medial femoral condyle.
Pellegrini-Stieda disease (or syndrome) is defined as the combination of the radiographic findings and concomitant medial knee joint pain or restricted range of motion.

Musculoskeletal #44

Clinical Data

39-year-old male:

  • With wrist trauma

Wrist X-ray AP projection
Wrist X-ray lateral projection
Which is the diagnosis?
  • Undisplaced scaphoid fracture

  • Acute boxer’s fracture

  • Dorsal avulsion fracture of the triquetrum

  • No abnormality

Which is the diagnosis?
  • Undisplaced scaphoid fracture – FALSE

  • Acute boxer’s fracture – FALSE

  • Dorsal avulsion fracture of the triquetrum (Red arrow) – TRUE

  • No abnormality – FALSE

    Explanation:

    • Notice also the dorsal soft tissue swelling with air lucencies (Located inside the orange line).

    Triquetral fractures:

    • Second most common carpal bone fracture (after the scaphoid)

    • Fall onto an outstretched hand in ulnar deviation and carpal extension or direct blow to the dorsum of the hand (latter in this case)

    • Almost always dorsal avulsion type

    • Usually only seen on lateral radiographs with the classic “pooping duck” sign

Musculoskeletal #43

Clinical Data

32-year-old male:

  • After fall from about 1 meter high

  • Felt a snap in his knee

  • Instability

What are the findings on the radiograph?
  • Deep lateral notch (sulcus) sign on lateral projection

  • Suprapatellar effusion

What’s the next best step and why?
  • MRI of the knee, due to high index of suspicion for ACL tear

What is the final diagnosis?

    Full-thickness ACL tear

    • Patient had additional abnormalities of the knee not shown.


Image 1
Right

Image 2
(Almost) Normal left for comparison

Musculoskeletal #42

Clinical Data

55-year-old female:

  • With trauma

  • Painful elbow after a fall from height

  • Supination and pronation painful



What’s the radiological sign visible on the radiograph?

Capitellum fracture

The case represents a classic capitellum fracture, with a mildly displaced fragment on the lateral projection, which can easily be missed if one is not familiar with the double-arc sign.

Musculoskeletal #41

45-year-old female with forefoot pain:

What is the pathology located?

Where is the pathology located?

D3/D4 intermetatarsal space

Describe the pathology. Can you name it?

T1- and T2-hypointense soft tissue mass located in D3/D4 intermetatarsal space – Morton neuroma.

References:

Morton neuroma is a result of a compressive neuropathy of the forefoot interdigital nerve. The most common location for interdigital neuromas are between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads. Most patients with Morton neuroma have a good recovery with non-surgical treatment. 

Munir U, Tafti D, Morgan S. Morton Neuroma. [Updated 2023 May 22]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2024 Jan-. Available from: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470249/

Musculoskeletal #40

85-year-old patient:
– with long-standing left hip pain
– X-rays requested

Showing images from an MRI

T2W Fat Sat
T1W

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Marked collapse of the articular surface of the left femoral head, along with fragmentation, indicative of osteonecrosis
Secondary dvanced degenerative changes in the hip joint

Reference: Mont MA et al: Nontraumatic osteonecrosis of the femoral head: where do we stand today? A 5-year update. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 102(12):1084-99, 2020