53-year-old male:
– Hemodialysis patient
– Presents with a very large scrotum, size of a football
– Patient is not sick, no fever
– Laboratory results are normal
– US: Incarcerated inguinal hernia? Hydrocele? Malignancy?
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Diagnosis: Extensive scrotal lymphoedema
– Extensive scrotal wall thickening associated with diffuse lymphoedema extending to the base of penis not involving the penile corpora
– No extension into the deep subcutaneous tissue planes, inguinal canal, or muscles
– No extension to the groin or lower abdomen
– No inguinal adenopathy
– Both testicles are morphologically normal with no associated hydroceles
– There is no associated soft-tissue mass
Large joint effusion with the displacement of the anterior fat pad. Mild posterior soft tissue swelling over the olecranon. Fracture line along the lateral aspect of the radial neck. Radial head and articular surface are normal
Diagnosis
Nondisplaced radial head fracture
Teaching points
– Check not only the bones and joints but also the soft tissues
– Search and interpret the findings in two different positions
– Pain always withholds a story behind
CT – Coronal + CCT – Axial + CWhere is the abnormality?​
Left side of the neck.
How can the abnormality be described?​
Multiple enlarged neck clustered lymph nodes, with some of them showing necrosis.
What is the differential diagnosis?
Infectious lymphadenitis: such as TB or pyogenic lymphadenitis. Metastasis: particularly from head and neck malignancies. Treated lymphoma or lymphoma in immune compromised patient.
4 images of the right shoulder were obtained (axillar, Y-view, internal rotation, external rotation)
Click here to see the imagesY-view
Internal rotationExternal rotationFindings:
Findings
Right shoulder: There is a nondisplaced fracture involving the inferior aspect of the glenoid, with involvement of the articular surface. Glenohumeral joint shows normal alignment. Acromioclavicular joint is normal. No soft-tissue calcification. No fracture or dislocation
What is the most likely diagnosis?
The most likely diagnosis is Hill-Sachs lesion
Hill-Sachs lesions are a posterolateral humeral head compression fracture. Typically occurs secondary to recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. It is often associated with a Bankart lesion of the glenoid
Internal RotationExternal Rotation
These lesions are best seen following relocation of the joint. It appears as a sclerotic line running vertically from the top of the humeral head towards the shaft. A wedge defect may be evident in large lesions. The lesions are better appreciated on internal rotation views
89-year-old female patient with aplastic anemia. Showing CT images without contrast media. What do you see?
Click here to see the answer
CT images without contrast media: Subacute isodense right subdural hematoma, revealed with narrowing of right cerebral hemispheric sulci and right lateral ventricle and minimal midline shift (red arrows), acute left subdural hematoma (blue arrow)
43-year-old healthy patient:
– with fibromyalgia
– No other relevant medical history
What do you see on the following images?
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IMAGING FINDINGS:
Multiple focal sclerotic bone lesions clustered around joints in both knees and sacroiliac joints
DIAGNOSIS:
Osteopoikilosis
TEACHING POINTS:
Sclerosing bony dysplasia characterized by multiple enostoses
Typically clustered around joints, aligned parallel to trabeculae. Usually 1-3 mm, they can reach up to 20 mm
Rare condition; inherited; asymptomatic; incidental
Important to avoid misdiagnosis with other relevant pathologies such as metastasis
The jugular bulb bulges into the left middle ear cavity with absence of the sigmoid plate separating the jugular bulb from the middle ear in keeping with dehiscent jugular bulb.
It is one of the causes of pulsatile tinnitus, patients can also present with conductive hearing loss if the jugular vein contacts the tympanic membrane.